🌸 Chapter 3
Reproductive Health
(2 Marks )
🧬 Reproductive Health – 2
Marks Questions with Answers
1. What is reproductive health?
Answer:
Reproductive health refers to complete physical, mental, social, and emotional
well-being in all matters related to the reproductive system, its functions,
and processes — not merely the absence of diseases or disorders.
2. Why is reproductive health
necessary in a country like India?
Answer:
It ensures awareness about reproductive organs, STDs, safe sex, and birth
control — helping to control population growth and improve maternal and child
health.
3. What is the main objective of the
Reproductive and Child Health (RCH) Programme?
Answer:
To provide comprehensive reproductive and child healthcare facilities,
awareness about birth control, and prevention of sexually transmitted diseases.
4. Mention any two measures taken by
the Government to improve reproductive health.
Answer:
1.
Launching
family welfare programs.
2.
Establishing
fertility and maternity centers under RCH programs.
5. What are the major goals of
family planning programs?
Answer:
To control population growth, reduce maternal and infant mortality rates, and
ensure reproductive health awareness.
6. What are sexually transmitted
diseases (STDs)?
Answer:
STDs are infections transmitted primarily through sexual contact, e.g., AIDS,
syphilis, gonorrhea, and genital herpes.
7. Name any two sexually transmitted
diseases caused by bacteria.
Answer:
1.
Syphilis
(caused by Treponema pallidum)
2.
Gonorrhea
(caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae)
8. Name any two viral sexually transmitted
diseases.
Answer:
1.
AIDS
(caused by HIV)
2.
Genital
herpes (caused by Herpes simplex virus)
9. Give two symptoms of gonorrhea.
Answer:
Painful urination and yellow pus-like discharge from genital organs.
10. Mention any two preventive
measures against STDs.
Answer:
1.
Use
of condoms during intercourse.
2.
Maintaining
sexual hygiene and avoiding multiple partners.
11. What is contraception?
Answer:
Contraception is the intentional prevention of conception or pregnancy using
natural, mechanical, chemical, or surgical methods.
12. Mention any two natural methods
of contraception.
Answer:
1.
Periodic
abstinence.
2.
Coitus
interruptus (withdrawal method).
13. What is lactational amenorrhea?
Answer:
It is the temporary absence of menstruation and ovulation during the period of
intense breastfeeding, which acts as a natural contraceptive for about six
months.
14. Name two barrier methods of
contraception.
Answer:
1.
Condoms
(male and female)
2.
Diaphragms
or cervical caps.
15. What are oral contraceptives?
Answer:
These are pills containing small doses of estrogen and progesterone hormones
that inhibit ovulation and prevent pregnancy.
16. What is the function of an IUD
(Intra-Uterine Device)?
Answer:
IUDs prevent fertilization and implantation by altering the uterine environment
and increasing phagocytosis of sperm.
17. Give two examples of
copper-releasing IUDs.
Answer:
Copper-T and Multiload-375.
18. What is the main mechanism of
action of copper-releasing IUDs?
Answer:
They release copper ions, which suppress sperm motility and viability,
preventing fertilization.
19. What is the hormone-releasing
IUD? Give one example.
Answer:
IUDs that release hormones like progesterone to prevent implantation, e.g.,
LNG-20.
20. What is sterilization?
Answer:
Sterilization is a permanent method of contraception where surgical procedures
(vasectomy or tubectomy) block gamete transport to prevent fertilization.
21. Differentiate between vasectomy
and tubectomy.
Answer:
- Vasectomy: Vas deferens cut and tied in
males.
- Tubectomy: Fallopian tubes cut and tied
in females.
22. What is medical termination of
pregnancy (MTP)?
Answer:
MTP or induced abortion is the deliberate termination of pregnancy before full
term, allowed legally up to 20 weeks under medical supervision.
23. State two reasons for performing
MTP.
Answer:
1.
To
avoid unwanted pregnancy or in case of contraceptive failure.
2.
When
continuation endangers the mother’s health or life.
24. Why is amniocentesis banned for
sex determination in India?
Answer:
Because it was misused for female feticide, leading to a decline in the
female-to-male ratio.
25. What is amniocentesis used for?
Answer:
To detect genetic or chromosomal disorders in the developing fetus by analyzing
amniotic fluid.
26. What is infertility?
Answer:
Infertility is the inability of a couple to conceive after one year of regular
unprotected sexual intercourse.
27. List two possible causes of
infertility.
Answer:
1.
Hormonal
imbalance.
2.
Blockage
in fallopian tubes or low sperm count.
28. What are Assisted Reproductive
Technologies (ART)?
Answer:
ART are medical techniques designed to help infertile couples conceive, such as
IVF, ZIFT, and GIFT.
29. What is IVF?
Answer:
In Vitro Fertilization — fusion of sperm and ovum outside the body in
laboratory conditions, followed by embryo transfer to the uterus.
30. What is ZIFT?
Answer:
Zygote Intra-Fallopian Transfer — zygote formed by IVF is transferred into the
fallopian tube for further development.
31. What is GIFT?
Answer:
Gamete Intra-Fallopian Transfer — sperm and ovum are directly placed into the
fallopian tube for in vivo fertilization.
32. What is ICSI and when is it
used?
Answer:
Intracytoplasmic Sperm Injection — a single sperm is injected into an ovum,
used when male sperm count is very low.
33. Define artificial insemination
(AI).
Answer:
It is the process of collecting semen from a healthy donor and artificially
introducing it into the female reproductive tract to induce fertilization.
34. What is a test-tube baby?
Answer:
A baby born through IVF and embryo transfer technique — fertilization occurs in
vitro, and the embryo is implanted in the uterus.
35. Name two common causes of
population explosion.
Answer:
1.
Decline
in death rate.
2.
Early
marriage and lack of awareness about contraception.
36. Suggest two methods to control
population growth.
Answer:
1.
Use
of contraceptives.
2.
Promoting
late marriage and small-family norms.
37. What is the full form of WHO?
Answer:
World Health Organization — it promotes global reproductive health and disease
control programs.
38. Name the act that prevents sex
selection before or after conception.
Answer:
PCPNDT Act – Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques (Prohibition of
Sex Selection) Act.
39. What is the aim of the PCPNDT Act?
Answer:
To prohibit the misuse of prenatal diagnostic techniques for sex determination
and prevent female feticide.
40. Write any two functions of
estrogen and progesterone in females.
Answer:
Estrogen promotes secondary sexual characteristics; progesterone maintains
pregnancy and inhibits ovulation when used in pills.
41. What are the main symptoms of
AIDS?
Answer:
Weak immune system, weight loss, prolonged fever, and increased susceptibility
to infections like TB and pneumonia.
42. What is the causative organism
of AIDS?
Answer:
Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV).
43. How can AIDS be prevented?
Answer:
Avoid unprotected sex, sharing of needles, and ensure screened blood
transfusions.
44. Name two bacterial STDs that are
completely curable.
Answer:
Syphilis and Gonorrhea (curable with antibiotics if detected early).
45. What are emergency contraceptive
pills?
Answer:
High-dose hormonal pills taken within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse to
prevent implantation or ovulation.
46. Mention one advantage and one
disadvantage of natural contraceptive methods.
Answer:
Advantage – No side effects.
Disadvantage – High failure rate due to miscalculation.
47. What is the function of
prolactin during lactation?
Answer:
Prolactin stimulates milk production and suppresses ovulation during
breastfeeding.
48. Name two examples of
hormone-based contraceptive pills.
Answer:
Mala-D and Saheli (Centchroman).
49. What is the role of copper in
Copper-T IUD?
Answer:
Copper ions suppress sperm motility and viability, preventing fertilization.
50. Define reproductive health
according to WHO.
Answer:
WHO defines reproductive health as “a state of complete physical, mental,
social, and behavioral well-being in all aspects of reproduction.”
