🧬 Chapter 3: Reproductive Health – Class 12 MCQs | NCERT + NEET Focus

Rashmi Mishra
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🌸 Chapter 3

Reproductive Health

 (MCQs)

🧬 Reproductive Health — 100 MCQs with Answers and Explanations


🌸 Section A: Basics of Reproductive Health (1–10)

1.   Reproductive health refers to —
A. Absence of reproductive diseases
B. Physical and emotional well-being
C. Physical, emotional, and social well-being
D. Only ability to reproduce
Answer: C
Explanation: WHO defines reproductive health as total physical, emotional, behavioral, and social well-being in all aspects of reproduction.


2.   India initiated family planning programs in —
A. 1951
B. 1961
C. 1971
D. 1981
Answer: A
Explanation: India was the first country to start a national family planning program in 1951.


3.   Which program replaced the Family Planning Programme?
A. ICDS
B. NRHM
C. RCH Programme
D. MCH Programme
Answer: C
Explanation: The Reproductive and Child Health (RCH) program broadened the scope of family planning.


4.   Which is not an aim of the RCH program?
A. Awareness about contraception
B. Child immunization
C. Promotion of amniocentesis for sex determination
D. Maternal health care
Answer: C
Explanation: Amniocentesis for sex determination is banned; it is not an aim.


5.   Reproductive health includes —
A. Only male health
B. Only female health
C. Both male and female health
D. Only children’s health
Answer: C
Explanation: It involves health of both genders in all reproductive aspects.


6.   Sex education in schools helps to —
A. Encourage early sex
B. Prevent STDs and unwanted pregnancies
C. Promote superstition
D. Increase illiteracy
Answer: B
Explanation: Sex education aims to promote safe and responsible sexual behavior.


7.   The major component of reproductive health is —
A. Nutrition
B. Population control and family planning
C. Sports
D. Agriculture
Answer: B
Explanation: Family planning is a key part of reproductive health management.


8.   A child is born free of HIV if —
A. Mother takes ART medicines
B. Father is HIV positive
C. Both are HIV positive
D. Mother takes painkillers
Answer: A
Explanation: Antiretroviral therapy (ART) can prevent transmission of HIV from mother to child.


9.   Which organization defines reproductive health?
A. WHO
B. UNESCO
C. UNICEF
D. FAO
Answer: A
Explanation: World Health Organization gives the official definition.


10.                   Reproductive health programs include —
A. Food distribution
B. Population education and awareness
C. Industrial growth
D. Political campaigns
Answer: B
Explanation: They focus on education and awareness about reproduction and health.


🦠 Section B: Sexually Transmitted Diseases (STDs) (11–25)

11.                   STDs are transmitted mainly through —
A. Touch
B. Air
C. Sexual contact
D. Food
Answer: C
Explanation: They spread primarily by sexual intercourse with infected persons.


12.                   Which of the following is NOT an STD?
A. Syphilis
B. AIDS
C. Tuberculosis
D. Gonorrhea
Answer: C
Explanation: TB is not sexually transmitted; it spreads via air.


13.                   The causative agent of AIDS is —
A. Virus
B. Bacterium
C. Fungus
D. Protozoa
Answer: A
Explanation: AIDS is caused by HIV (Human Immunodeficiency Virus).


14.                   Which STD is caused by a bacterium?
A. AIDS
B. Genital warts
C. Gonorrhea
D. Herpes
Answer: C
Explanation: Gonorrhea is caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae (bacterium).


15.                   A common symptom of STD is —
A. Cough
B. Fever
C. Genital discharge or sores
D. Headache
Answer: C
Explanation: Genital discharge, sores, and irritation are typical STD symptoms.


16.                   Which of the following is a viral disease?
A. Gonorrhea
B. AIDS
C. Syphilis
D. Chlamydia
Answer: B
Explanation: AIDS is viral; others listed are bacterial.


17.                   Which STD is not curable?
A. Syphilis
B. Gonorrhea
C. AIDS
D. Chlamydia
Answer: C
Explanation: AIDS is not curable; others can be treated with antibiotics.


18.                   Prevention of STDs includes —
A. Avoiding sharing clothes
B. Using condoms
C. Eating balanced diet
D. Playing sports
Answer: B
Explanation: Condom use prevents STD transmission.


19.                   Which of the following STD can lead to cancer?
A. HIV
B. HPV
C. HSV
D. Gonorrhea
Answer: B
Explanation: Human Papillomavirus (HPV) causes genital warts and cervical cancer.


20.                   Trichomoniasis is caused by —
A. Virus
B. Bacteria
C. Protozoa
D. Fungus
Answer: C
Explanation: Caused by Trichomonas vaginalis (a protozoan parasite).


21.                   Syphilis is caused by —
A. Treponema pallidum
B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
C. Chlamydia trachomatis
D. HIV
Answer: A
Explanation: Treponema pallidum causes syphilis.


22.                   Genital herpes is caused by —
A. HPV
B. HSV
C. HIV
D. HBV
Answer: B
Explanation: Herpes simplex virus causes genital herpes.


23.                   AIDS affects —
A. Nervous system
B. Respiratory system
C. Immune system
D. Digestive system
Answer: C
Explanation: It destroys helper T-cells, weakening immunity.


24.                   Hepatitis B virus is transmitted by —
A. Air
B. Water
C. Sexual contact and blood transfusion
D. Food only
Answer: C
Explanation: HBV spreads via blood and sexual contact.


25.                   Candidiasis is caused by —
A. Fungus
B. Bacterium
C. Virus
D. Protozoa
Answer: A
Explanation: Candida albicans is a fungal infection of genitals.


πŸ‘Ά Section C: Birth Control & Contraception (26–60)

26.                   Contraception means —
A. Avoiding menstruation
B. Preventing conception or pregnancy
C. Promoting fertility
D. Abortion
Answer: B
Explanation: Contraception prevents fertilization or implantation.


27.                   Periodic abstinence is —
A. Artificial method
B. Surgical method
C. Natural method
D. Hormonal method
Answer: C
Explanation: It involves avoiding sex during fertile days.


28.                   Which is a barrier method?
A. Condom
B. Copper-T
C. Vasectomy
D. Oral pill
Answer: A
Explanation: Condoms physically block sperm entry.


29.                   Copper-T is —
A. Natural method
B. IUD
C. Oral contraceptive
D. Surgical method
Answer: B
Explanation: Copper-T is an intrauterine device (IUD).


30.                   The main function of Copper in IUDs is to —
A. Kill ova
B. Suppress sperm motility and fertilizing capacity
C. Prevent ovulation
D. Destroy zygote
Answer: B
Explanation: Copper ions reduce sperm motility, preventing fertilization.


31.                   Saheli is —
A. Barrier
B. IUD
C. Oral non-steroidal contraceptive pill
D. Hormone injection
Answer: C
Explanation: Saheli contains centchroman, a non-steroidal pill developed by CDRI.


32.                   Which method prevents STDs?
A. IUDs
B. Condoms
C. Oral pills
D. MTP
Answer: B
Explanation: Only condoms act as a barrier to both sperm and pathogens.


33.                   Vasectomy involves —
A. Cutting vas deferens
B. Removing testis
C. Removing penis
D. Blocking urethra
Answer: A
Explanation: It is male sterilization by cutting vas deferens.


34.                   Tubectomy involves —
A. Cutting urethra
B. Cutting fallopian tubes
C. Removing ovaries
D. Removing uterus
Answer: B
Explanation: Female sterilization is done by tying or cutting oviducts.


35.                   Most popular contraceptive in India is —
A. Oral pill
B. IUD (Copper-T)
C. Vasectomy
D. Condoms
Answer: B
Explanation: IUDs are widely used due to safety and reversibility.


36.                   Lactational amenorrhea is effective up to —
A. 3 months
B. 6 months
C. 9 months
D. 12 months
Answer: B
Explanation: During first 6 months of lactation, ovulation is suppressed.


37.                   Which method is reversible?
A. Vasectomy
B. Tubectomy
C. Oral pills
D. None
Answer: C
Explanation: Oral pills stop ovulation temporarily.


38.                   Oral contraceptive pills act by —
A. Killing sperm
B. Preventing ovulation
C. Stimulating implantation
D. Destroying embryo
Answer: B
Explanation: They contain hormones that inhibit ovulation.


39.                   Which is a permanent method of contraception?
A. IUD
B. Tubectomy
C. Condom
D. Oral pill
Answer: B
Explanation: Tubectomy permanently prevents fertilization.


40.                   Rupture of condom can result in —
A. Infertility
B. STD and pregnancy
C. Menstrual disorder
D. Loss of libido
Answer: B
Explanation: Breakage leads to sperm contact and STD risk.


41. What is the main objective of the Reproductive and Child Health (RCH) Programme?

A. Provide free education
B. Promote female foeticide
C. Provide reproductive health and child care services
D. Control HIV infection only

Answer: C. Provide reproductive health and child care services
Explanation:
The RCH Programme ensures comprehensive reproductive, maternal, newborn, child, and adolescent health services. It was launched to promote awareness and provide medical facilities for safe motherhood and child health.


42. Which of the following is not a component of reproductive health?

A. Sexual hygiene
B. Awareness about contraception
C. Balanced diet
D. Pollution control

Answer: D. Pollution control
Explanation:
Reproductive health includes education about hygiene, contraceptives, and prevention of STDs — pollution control is unrelated.


43. Which of the following STDs is caused by a virus?

A. Gonorrhea
B. Syphilis
C. AIDS
D. Trichomoniasis

Answer: C. AIDS
Explanation:
AIDS (Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome) is caused by Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV), which attacks the immune system.


44. Which of the following is a symptom of syphilis?

A. Painful ulcers on genitals
B. Yellow discharge
C. Skin rash on palms and soles
D. Both A and C

Answer: D. Both A and C
Explanation:
Syphilis shows symptoms like painless ulcers (chancre) initially, followed by rashes and later severe complications if untreated.


45. Which of the following is a barrier method of contraception?

A. Oral pills
B. Copper-T
C. Condom
D. Tubectomy

Answer: C. Condom
Explanation:
Condoms physically block sperm entry into the female reproductive tract and also prevent STDs. It’s a mechanical barrier method.


46. Why are IUDs recommended for females?

A. They suppress ovulation
B. They increase fertilization
C. They prevent implantation and fertilization
D. They cause abortion

Answer: C. They prevent implantation and fertilization
Explanation:
Intrauterine devices (like Copper-T, Multiload) prevent sperm from reaching the egg and inhibit implantation in the uterus.


47. Which of the following statements about natural contraceptive methods is true?

A. They are 100% effective
B. They have no side effects
C. They involve hormone intake
D. They require medical intervention

Answer: B. They have no side effects
Explanation:
Natural methods (like rhythm method, coitus interruptus, lactational amenorrhea) are safe and have no side effects, but are less reliable.


48. Which hormone suppresses ovulation in oral contraceptive pills?

A. LH
B. FSH
C. Estrogen and progesterone
D. Oxytocin

Answer: C. Estrogen and progesterone
Explanation:
These synthetic hormones inhibit the secretion of FSH and LH, thus preventing ovulation.


49. What is the main purpose of medical termination of pregnancy (MTP)?

A. To control population growth only
B. To remove unwanted pregnancy or safeguard mother's health
C. For sex selection
D. For research

Answer: B. To remove unwanted pregnancy or safeguard mother's health
Explanation:
MTP is legally permitted to prevent complications when pregnancy poses health risks or results from contraceptive failure or rape.


50. Which one of the following techniques is used for detection of genetic disorders in the fetus?

A. Amniocentesis
B. Vasectomy
C. ZIFT
D. GIFT

Answer: A. Amniocentesis
Explanation:
Amniocentesis is a prenatal diagnostic technique where amniotic fluid is analyzed for genetic and chromosomal abnormalities in the fetus.

51. Which of the following is not a natural contraceptive method?

A. Coitus interruptus
B. Periodic abstinence
C. Lactational amenorrhea
D. Intrauterine device

Answer: D. Intrauterine device
Explanation: IUDs are mechanical/chemical devices inserted into the uterus — not a natural method.


52. What is the full form of IUD?

A. Intra Uterine Drug
B. Intra Uterine Device
C. Internal Uterine Device
D. Integrated Uterine Device

Answer: B. Intra Uterine Device
Explanation: IUDs are small devices placed inside the uterus to prevent pregnancy.


53. The Copper-T acts as a contraceptive by:

A. Blocking ovulation
B. Killing spermatozoa
C. Increasing phagocytosis of sperms
D. Blocking implantation

Answer: C. Increasing phagocytosis of sperms
Explanation: Copper ions released from Copper-T increase phagocytosis of sperms in the uterus, preventing fertilization.


54. Oral contraceptive pills are mainly used to:

A. Induce abortion
B. Prevent ovulation
C. Promote menstruation
D. Kill sperms

Answer: B. Prevent ovulation
Explanation: Pills contain hormones (estrogen and progesterone) that inhibit the release of ovum.


55. Which hormone combination is present in oral contraceptive pills?

A. Estrogen + Testosterone
B. Estrogen + Progesterone
C. LH + FSH
D. Estrogen + Oxytocin

Answer: B. Estrogen + Progesterone
Explanation: These hormones inhibit ovulation by suppressing FSH and LH secretion.


56. Saheli pill developed in India contains:

A. Estrogen only
B. Progesterone only
C. Centchroman
D. Copper sulfate

Answer: C. Centchroman
Explanation: Saheli (developed by CDRI, Lucknow) contains Centchroman, a non-hormonal oral contraceptive.


57. The main purpose of contraceptive methods is to:

A. Increase fertility
B. Reduce population growth
C. Improve menstrual health
D. Enhance hormone levels

Answer: B. Reduce population growth
Explanation: Contraceptives help control population by preventing unwanted pregnancies.


58. Medical termination of pregnancy (MTP) is allowed up to:

A. 4 weeks
B. 12 weeks
C. 20 weeks
D. 30 weeks

Answer: C. 20 weeks
Explanation: According to MTP Act (1971, amended 2021), abortion is legally allowed up to 20 weeks under certain conditions.


59. Which of the following is a permanent birth control method in males?

A. Vasectomy
B. Tubectomy
C. Condom
D. Coitus interruptus

Answer: A. Vasectomy
Explanation: Vasectomy involves cutting and tying the vas deferens in males to prevent sperm release.


60. Tubectomy is a surgical method performed in:

A. Males
B. Females
C. Both
D. None

Answer: B. Females
Explanation: Tubectomy involves cutting and tying of fallopian tubes in females.


61. What is the main purpose of amniocentesis?

A. Sex determination
B. Detection of genetic disorders in fetus
C. Inducing abortion
D. Identifying twins

Answer: B. Detection of genetic disorders in fetus
Explanation: Amniocentesis analyzes amniotic fluid to detect chromosomal or metabolic abnormalities.


62. Amniocentesis is legally banned for:

A. Sex determination
B. Prenatal diagnosis of diseases
C. Infertility check
D. None of these

Answer: A. Sex determination
Explanation: Misuse for sex determination led to female feticide, hence banned under PCPNDT Act.


63. What does ART stand for in reproductive biology?

A. Assisted Reproductive Techniques
B. Artificial Reproduction Technology
C. Advanced Reproductive Therapy
D. Assisted Regeneration Treatment

Answer: A. Assisted Reproductive Techniques
Explanation: ART includes techniques like IVF, ZIFT, GIFT, ICSI used to treat infertility.


64. IVF stands for:

A. Internal Vivipary Fertilization
B. In Vitro Fertilization
C. In Vivo Fertilization
D. Induced Vivipary Formation

Answer: B. In Vitro Fertilization
Explanation: Fertilization occurs outside the body (“in glass”) — zygote is later implanted into uterus.


65. In IVF, fertilization occurs:

A. In uterus
B. In oviduct
C. Outside the body
D. In vagina

Answer: C. Outside the body
Explanation: IVF means fertilization is performed in laboratory conditions.


66. ZIFT stands for:

A. Zygote In Fallopian Transfer
B. Zygote Internal Fertility Technique
C. Zero Infertility Fertilization Transfer
D. Zygote Implantation and Fertilization Technique

Answer: A. Zygote In Fallopian Transfer
Explanation: In ZIFT, zygote formed in vitro is transferred into the fallopian tube.


67. GIFT stands for:

A. Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer
B. Gamete Implant Fertility Treatment
C. Germ Intra Fertilization Technique
D. Gametogenesis Induced Fertilization Transfer

Answer: A. Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer
Explanation: In GIFT, sperm and ovum are transferred directly into fallopian tube for fertilization inside the body.


68. Which ART is suitable when sperm count is very low?

A. IVF
B. ZIFT
C. ICSI
D. GIFT

Answer: C. ICSI
Explanation: Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection (ICSI) involves direct injection of sperm into the ovum.


69. Which is not an example of ART?

A. IVF
B. ZIFT
C. Tubectomy
D. GIFT

Answer: C. Tubectomy
Explanation: Tubectomy is a surgical sterilization method, not an infertility treatment.


70. Artificial insemination involves:

A. Fusion of gametes in test tube
B. Injection of semen into female reproductive tract
C. Removal of embryo
D. Surgical sterilization

Answer: B. Injection of semen into female reproductive tract
Explanation: AI helps infertile couples by artificially introducing semen into uterus or vagina.


71. Which infection is not sexually transmitted?

A. Gonorrhea
B. AIDS
C. Hepatitis B
D. Tuberculosis

Answer: D. Tuberculosis
Explanation: Tuberculosis is an airborne disease, not transmitted sexually.


72. Which of the following is caused by a protozoan?

A. Syphilis
B. Gonorrhea
C. Trichomoniasis
D. AIDS

Answer: C. Trichomoniasis
Explanation: Trichomoniasis is caused by Trichomonas vaginalis (a protozoan).


73. A bacterial STD is:

A. AIDS
B. Syphilis
C. Genital warts
D. Herpes

Answer: B. Syphilis
Explanation: Syphilis is caused by Treponema pallidum (bacterium).


74. Which of the following STDs is not completely curable?

A. Gonorrhea
B. AIDS
C. Syphilis
D. Trichomoniasis

Answer: B. AIDS
Explanation: AIDS (caused by HIV) is incurable, though manageable with ART drugs.


75. One of the first symptoms of HIV infection is:

A. Jaundice
B. Drop in CD4 cells
C. Fever and rash
D. Hair loss

Answer: C. Fever and rash
Explanation: Early symptoms include fever, fatigue, and skin rash; CD4 count drops later.


76. Which virus causes genital herpes?

A. Herpes simplex virus
B. Papilloma virus
C. HIV
D. Hepatitis virus

Answer: A. Herpes simplex virus
Explanation: Genital herpes is caused by Herpes simplex virus type 2 (HSV-2).


77. The ‘Saheli’ pill is given once every:

A. Day
B. Week
C. Month
D. Three days

Answer: B. Week
Explanation: Saheli is a non-hormonal pill taken once a week, unlike daily hormonal pills.


78. The device ‘Copper-T’ is placed in:

A. Vagina
B. Cervix
C. Uterus
D. Oviduct

Answer: C. Uterus
Explanation: IUDs like Copper-T are inserted in the uterus to prevent implantation or fertilization.


79. Condom acts as a:

A. Chemical barrier
B. Mechanical barrier
C. Hormonal contraceptive
D. Surgical method

Answer: B. Mechanical barrier
Explanation: Condoms physically block sperm entry into the female reproductive tract.


80. Which of the following methods provides protection from both pregnancy and STDs?

A. Oral pills
B. Condom
C. IUD
D. Vasectomy

Answer: B. Condom
Explanation: Condoms prevent pregnancy and protect from STDs like AIDS and syphilis.


81. Lactational amenorrhea is effective up to:

A. 2 months
B. 6 months
C. 12 months
D. 24 months

Answer: B. 6 months
Explanation: Breastfeeding suppresses ovulation up to about six months after childbirth.


82. Which act prohibits sex determination of fetus in India?

A. MTP Act
B. PCPNDT Act
C. Family Welfare Act
D. Reproductive Rights Act

Answer: B. PCPNDT Act
Explanation: Pre-Conception and Pre-Natal Diagnostic Techniques Act prevents misuse of diagnostic tools for sex determination.


83. What is infertility?

A. Failure to ovulate
B. Inability to conceive after 1 year of unprotected sex
C. Absence of menstruation
D. Hormonal imbalance

Answer: B. Inability to conceive after 1 year of unprotected sex
Explanation: Infertility is defined as failure to achieve pregnancy despite regular unprotected intercourse.


84. The “test-tube baby” is a result of:

A. GIFT
B. ZIFT
C. IVF
D. Artificial insemination

Answer: C. IVF
Explanation: In vitro fertilization and embryo transfer technique results in “test-tube baby.”


85. Which IUD has hormone-releasing property?

A. Lippes loop
B. Multiload 375
C. LNG-20
D. Copper-T

Answer: C. LNG-20
Explanation: LNG-20 releases progesterone-like hormone to prevent conception.


86. Which is a temporary contraceptive method?

A. Vasectomy
B. Condom
C. Tubectomy
D. None

Answer: B. Condom
Explanation: Condoms can be used and removed anytime — temporary method.


87. MTP can be performed legally under which condition?

A. Unwanted pregnancy due to contraceptive failure
B. Sex determination
C. Population control
D. Gender imbalance

Answer: A. Unwanted pregnancy due to contraceptive failure
Explanation: MTP allowed if pregnancy endangers mother’s life, due to rape, or contraceptive failure.


88. HIV mainly attacks which cells?

A. RBCs
B. WBCs (T-lymphocytes)
C. Platelets
D. Nerve cells

Answer: B. WBCs (T-lymphocytes)
Explanation: HIV infects helper T-cells (CD4+), weakening the immune system.


89. Condom is made up of:

A. Polyethylene
B. Latex
C. Copper
D. Nylon

Answer: B. Latex
Explanation: Condoms are thin sheaths of latex rubber.


90. Name the hormone responsible for lactational amenorrhea.

A. Estrogen
B. Oxytocin
C. Prolactin
D. Progesterone

Answer: C. Prolactin
Explanation: Prolactin inhibits ovulation during breastfeeding.


91. Name the national program promoting reproductive health in India.

A. Reproductive and Child Health (RCH) Program
B. Family Act
C. Child Welfare Scheme
D. Health Mission

Answer: A. Reproductive and Child Health (RCH) Program
Explanation: RCH program launched by the government ensures safe motherhood and child health.


92. Which contraceptive method prevents implantation of embryo?

A. Oral pills
B. IUDs
C. Condom
D. Vasectomy

Answer: B. IUDs
Explanation: IUDs alter uterine lining, preventing implantation of the zygote.


93. Which STD shows symptoms like yellow discharge and burning sensation?

A. Gonorrhea
B. AIDS
C. Herpes
D. Syphilis

Answer: A. Gonorrhea
Explanation: Neisseria gonorrhoeae causes pus discharge and burning during urination.


94. The “morning-after pill” prevents:

A. Ovulation
B. Implantation
C. Menstruation
D. Fertilization

Answer: B. Implantation
Explanation: Emergency contraceptive pills delay ovulation or prevent implantation.


95. Which organization promotes awareness about reproductive health?

A. UNESCO
B. WHO
C. IMF
D. FAO

Answer: B. WHO
Explanation: World Health Organization conducts global programs on reproductive health and family planning.


96. Which ART involves embryo transfer to uterus after several cell divisions?

A. ZIFT
B. GIFT
C. ICSI
D. IVF-ET

Answer: D. IVF-ET
Explanation: In IVF-ET, embryo (2–8 cell stage) is transferred into uterus.


97. Which bacterial STD can cause blindness in newborns?

A. Gonorrhea
B. Syphilis
C. Trichomoniasis
D. AIDS

Answer: A. Gonorrhea
Explanation: Untreated gonorrhea in mothers can cause ophthalmia neonatorum in newborns.


98. What does “test-tube baby” actually mean?

A. Baby born in test tube
B. Fertilization outside body
C. Artificial embryo growth
D. Gene-edited baby

Answer: B. Fertilization outside body
Explanation: Fertilization occurs in vitro, then embryo is implanted in uterus.


99. What is the major goal of family planning programs?

A. Encourage early marriage
B. Control population growth
C. Promote large families
D. Reduce literacy

Answer: B. Control population growth
Explanation: Family planning aims to reduce population growth through awareness and contraceptive use.


100. Which of the following statements about reproductive health is correct?

A. It includes only physical health.
B. It is limited to absence of diseases.
C. It includes physical, emotional, behavioral, and social well-being.
D. It is only for married couples.

Answer: C. It includes physical, emotional, behavioral, and social well-being.
Explanation: WHO defines reproductive health as complete well-being in all aspects related to reproduction.



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