🧬 Chapter 9: Biotechnology: Principles and Processes– Class 12 -- 4 Marks Questions with Answers | NCERT + NEET Focus

Rashmi Mishra
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🌸Chapter 9

Biotechnology: Principles and Processes

(4Marks) 

Q1. Explain the difference between genetic engineering and traditional breeding.
Ans:

  • Genetic engineering: Direct manipulation of DNA to produce desired traits, can transfer genes across species, fast and precise.
  • Traditional breeding: Involves crossing of organisms with desirable traits, limited to closely related species, slow and less precise.

Q2. List the steps involved in recombinant DNA technology.
Ans:

1.   Isolation of DNA from donor organism

2.   Cutting DNA using restriction enzymes

3.   Ligation of foreign DNA into a vector

4.   Introduction of recombinant DNA into host (transformation)

5.   Screening and selection of recombinants

6.   Large-scale culture and downstream processing


Q3. Explain the role of restriction enzymes in biotechnology.
Ans:

  • Cut DNA at specific palindromic sequences
  • Produce sticky or blunt ends for gene insertion
  • Essential for precise gene cloning and recombinant DNA construction

Q4. What are plasmids? How are they used in gene cloning?
Ans:

  • Plasmids are small circular DNA molecules in bacteria, independent of chromosomal DNA.
  • Used as vectors to carry foreign DNA into host cells for replication and expression.
  • Contain selectable markers (e.g., amp^r) and unique restriction sites for cloning.

Q5. Differentiate between sticky ends and blunt ends.
Ans:

Feature

Sticky Ends

Blunt Ends

Structure

Single-stranded overhangs

No overhang, straight cut

Ligation

Easily ligated with complementary ends

Harder to ligate

Formation

Some restriction enzymes (EcoRI)

Some restriction enzymes (SmaI)


Q6. Explain the role of DNA ligase.
Ans:

  • DNA ligase joins DNA fragments by forming phosphodiester bonds.
  • Seals nicks in sugar-phosphate backbone of recombinant DNA.
  • Essential for creating stable recombinant DNA molecules.

Q7. Describe the structure and important features of pBR322.
Ans:

  • Circular plasmid vector
  • Contains origin of replication (Ori)
  • Selectable markers: ampicillin (amp^r) and tetracycline (tet^r)
  • Unique restriction sites for inserting foreign DNA
  • Small size facilitates transformation into E. coli

Q8. Explain the process of bacterial transformation.
Ans:

1.   Bacteria made competent using CaCl₂ or heat-shock

2.   Recombinant plasmid DNA introduced into bacterial cell

3.   Transformed cells selected using antibiotic resistance

4.   Successfully transformed bacteria replicate and express foreign gene


Q9. What is PCR? Explain its significance.
Ans:

  • PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) amplifies a specific DNA fragment in vitro.
  • Steps: Denaturation, Annealing, Extension.
  • Uses Taq polymerase from Thermus aquaticus.
  • Significant for gene cloning, diagnostics, DNA fingerprinting, pathogen detection.

Q10. Explain the three steps of PCR.
Ans:

1.   Denaturation (95°C): DNA strands separate

2.   Annealing (55°C): Primers bind to complementary DNA sequences

3.   Extension (72°C): Taq polymerase synthesizes new DNA strands

  • Repeated cycles yield millions of copies of target DNA.

Q11. How is recombinant insulin produced using E. coli?
Ans:

1.   Human insulin gene inserted into plasmid vector.

2.   Plasmid introduced into E. coli (transformation).

3.   E. coli expresses A and B chains separately.

4.   Chains purified and combined to form functional insulin.


Q12. What is an expression vector? Give one example.
Ans:

  • A vector designed to express the inserted gene in the host organism.
  • Contains promoter, cloning site, and selectable marker.
  • Example: pET vector for protein expression in E. coli.

Q13. Describe the principle and steps of gel electrophoresis.
Ans:

  • Principle: DNA fragments are negatively charged and move toward the anode through agarose gel; smaller fragments move faster.
  • Steps:

1.   DNA samples mixed with loading dye

2.   Loaded into agarose gel wells

3.   Electric current applied

4.   DNA visualized using ethidium bromide under UV light


Q14. What is the function of a bioreactor?
Ans:

  • Provides controlled conditions (pH, temperature, oxygen, nutrients)
  • Supports large-scale microbial or cell culture
  • Facilitates continuous production of recombinant proteins, enzymes, vaccines

Q15. Differentiate between stirred-tank and airlift bioreactors.
Ans:

Feature

Stirred-Tank

Airlift

Mixing

Mechanical impeller

Air bubbles

Shear

High

Low

Applications

Wide variety of cultures

Shear-sensitive cultures


Q16. What is downstream processing in biotechnology?
Ans:

  • Purification, separation, and formulation of the desired product after fermentation.
  • Steps include: cell removal, filtration, chromatography, and quality testing.

Q17. Explain the role of sparger and agitator in a bioreactor.
Ans:

  • Sparger: Introduces sterile air/oxygen for aerobic growth
  • Agitator: Ensures uniform mixing, prevents sedimentation, distributes nutrients

Q18. Define selectable marker and give examples.
Ans:

  • Gene used to identify transformed cells
  • Example: ampicillin resistance (amp^r), tetracycline resistance (tet^r)

Q19. Explain insertional inactivation.
Ans:

  • A foreign DNA inserted into a marker gene (e.g., lacZ) inactivates it.
  • Recombinant colonies can be distinguished (white colonies) from non-recombinants (blue colonies) using X-gal.

Q20. What are competent cells and how are they prepared?
Ans:

  • Cells that can take up foreign DNA
  • Prepared using CaCl₂ treatment or heat-shock to make membrane permeable

Q21. Explain the difference between transformation and transfection.
Ans:

  • Transformation: Uptake of naked DNA by bacteria
  • Transfection: Introduction of DNA into eukaryotic cells using a vector

Q22. Explain the principle of recombinant DNA technology.
Ans:

  • Combines DNA from two sources to form recombinant DNA
  • Introduced into host for replication and/or expression
  • Tools: restriction enzymes, ligase, vectors, host cells

Q23. Name three applications of recombinant DNA technology in medicine.
Ans:

1.   Production of insulin

2.   Production of growth hormones and interferon

3.   Gene therapy for inherited disorders


Q24. How is human growth hormone produced using biotechnology?
Ans:

  • hGH gene inserted into E. coli plasmid vector
  • Bacteria express the protein
  • Protein purified using chromatography for medical use

Q25. What are the advantages of recombinant proteins over animal-derived proteins?
Ans:

  • Pure and safer
  • Large-scale production
  • Less risk of infection or immunogenicity

Q26. Explain the role of multiple cloning sites (MCS).
Ans:

  • Region containing several unique restriction enzyme sites
  • Allows flexible insertion of DNA fragments in a vector

Q27. What is a palindromic sequence? Give an example.
Ans:

  • Reads the same 5’→3’ on both strands
  • Example: GAATTC / CTTAAG (recognized by EcoRI)

Q28. How are recombinant colonies identified using antibiotic selection?
Ans:

  • Only transformed cells survive in medium with specific antibiotic
  • Non-transformed cells die
  • Selective marker ensures identification of recombinants

Q29. Explain the importance of Taq polymerase in PCR.
Ans:

  • Heat-stable enzyme from Thermus aquaticus
  • Synthesizes DNA at high temperatures without denaturing
  • Enables repeated PCR cycles efficiently

Q30. Describe how DNA is visualized after electrophoresis.
Ans:

  • Stain gel with ethidium bromide
  • DNA fluoresces orange under UV light
  • Band size compared with a DNA ladder for estimation

Q31. What is a vector? Give two examples.
Ans:

  • DNA molecule used to carry foreign gene into host
  • Examples: plasmids (pBR322), bacteriophage (λ phage)

Q32. How is recombinant DNA inserted into a host?
Ans:

  • Bacterial hosts: transformation (CaCl₂, heat-shock)
  • Eukaryotic hosts: transfection (liposomes, electroporation, gene gun)

Q33. Explain how insulin A and B chains are combined.
Ans:

  • A and B polypeptide chains produced separately in E. coli
  • Purified and chemically combined via disulfide bond formation
  • Functional insulin is obtained

Q34. Mention any three tools used in genetic engineering.
Ans:

1.   Restriction enzymes

2.   DNA ligase

3.   Cloning vectors

4.   PCR and gel electrophoresis


Q35. How does downstream processing ensure product purity?
Ans:

  • Removal of cells and media components
  • Filtration, chromatography, and crystallization
  • Quality control ensures safety and efficacy

Q36. Explain why sterile conditions are necessary in a bioreactor.
Ans:

  • Prevents contamination by unwanted microbes
  • Ensures maximum yield and purity of recombinant product

Q37. Define “recombinant DNA”.
Ans:

  • DNA formed by joining DNA from two different sources
  • Can replicate and express in a host cell

Q38. What is the importance of cloning in biotechnology?
Ans:

  • Amplifies desired gene
  • Produces large amounts of protein product
  • Facilitates research, medicine, and agriculture

Q39. Explain the difference between expression and cloning vectors.
Ans:

Feature

Cloning Vector

Expression Vector

Purpose

Gene replication

Gene expression as protein

Elements

Ori, selectable marker

Ori, marker, promoter

Host

Bacteria

Bacteria/Yeast


Q40. What are the major applications of PCR?
Ans:

1.   Gene cloning

2.   DNA fingerprinting

3.   Pathogen detection

4.   Sequencing and diagnostics


Q41. How is a competent cell prepared in E. coli?
Ans:

  • Treat with CaCl₂ at cold temperature
  • Apply brief heat-shock
  • Membrane becomes permeable to plasmid DNA

Q42. Explain how restriction enzymes are named.
Ans:

  • First letter: Genus of bacteria
  • Next two letters: Species
  • Roman numeral: Order of discovery
    Example: EcoRIE. coli RY13, 1st enzyme discovered

Q43. Give two examples of industrial products obtained using biotechnology.
Ans:

1.   Ethanol (fermentation)

2.   Antibiotics (penicillin, streptomycin)


Q44. Explain the difference between blunt-end ligation and sticky-end ligation.
Ans:

  • Sticky ends: Complementary overhangs, easier ligation
  • Blunt ends: No overhangs, less efficient ligation

Q45. Describe how DNA fragments are amplified using PCR.
Ans:

  • DNA denatured at 95°C
  • Primers anneal at 55°C
  • Taq polymerase extends strands at 72°C
  • Repeated cycles produce millions of copies

Q46. How are recombinant colonies screened using blue-white screening?
Ans:

  • Plasmid has lacZ gene
  • Insertion of foreign DNA inactivates lacZ
  • White colonies = recombinant, Blue = non-recombinant (X-gal assay)

Q47. Explain the role of ethidium bromide in gel electrophoresis.
Ans:

  • Intercalates between DNA bases
  • Fluoresces under UV light
  • Visualizes DNA bands after electrophoresis

Q48. What is the difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic expression systems?
Ans:

Feature

Prokaryotic

Eukaryotic

Example

E. coli

Yeast, Mammalian cells

Post-translational modification

None

Yes (glycosylation)

Protein folding

Simple

Complex


Q49. Mention the three important properties of a cloning vector.
Ans:

1.   Origin of replication (Ori)

2.   Selectable marker

3.   Unique restriction sites (cloning sites)


Q50. Describe the steps of downstream processing.
Ans:

1.   Cell removal: Filtration or centrifugation

2.   Purification: Chromatography, precipitation

3.   Formulation: Concentration, stabilization

4.   Quality control: Test for purity and activity



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